dolce
New Member
Posts: 2
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Post by dolce on Apr 19, 2004 19:33:51 GMT -5
Well, this sequence seemed easy at first, but I am bangin' my head against the wall after three hours of torture. Given a sequence of numbers br] 1/6, -1/6, 3/20, -2/15, 5/42, ... I need to define the above sequence as a function of n, with n 0 -> infinity Ai, my head is boiling! ---- encyclopedia.thefreedictionary.com/sequence----
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Mikey // Neon
xTeam
My life is just one big typo and I have no backspace.
Posts: 572
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Post by Mikey // Neon on Apr 19, 2004 21:05:52 GMT -5
1/6, -1/6, 3/20, -2/15, 5/42, ...
was quite easy
certain numbers added together equal the other numbers then you can use the un used number to ad into the other numbers.haha jk. The equation is rigged. FAKE. not possible:) You got set up
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dolce
New Member
Posts: 2
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Post by dolce on Apr 20, 2004 5:28:26 GMT -5
possible
1/6 = 1/(2*3) -1/6 = -2/(3*4) 3/20 = 3/(4*5) -2/15 = -4(5*6) 5/42 = 5/(6*7)
a_n = ((-1)^(n+1))*n/(n+1)(n+2)
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